A 42-year-old woman has a Pap smear as part of a routine health maintenance examination. Her previous Pap smear was obtained 10 years ago. There are no remarkable findings on physical examination. The current Pap smear shows findings consistent with cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) III. A cervical biopsy is performed, and microscopic examination shows dysplastic cells that occupy the full thickness of the epithelium above the basement membrane. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for proceeding with cervical conization for this patient?
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