During a routine health maintenance examination, a 46-year-old man is found to have an enlarged, nontender supraclavicular lymph node that is palpable on physical examination. The 2-cm node is excised. Histologically, the nodal architecture is effaced by a monomorphous population of small lymphocytes. Which of the following procedures would best confirm that the patient has a malignancy?
Wednesday - We will have Image based discussion. That will mark the end of First revision - Second revision we shall do it faster - Chapter wise. Starting from Thursday - INI Pattern (Multiple choice questions) - Subscribe here today to get access..!